Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 155, Number 33: GOVERNMENT NOTICES
August 14, 2021
DEPARTMENT OF CITIZENSHIP AND IMMIGRATION
COLLEGE OF IMMIGRATION AND CITIZENSHIP CONSULTANTS ACT
Ministerial Order for Continuance — College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants
Whereas, pursuant to subsection 84(1) of the College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants Act, the Immigration Consultants of Canada Regulatory Council has applied to the Minister of Citizenship and Immigration to be continued under that Act;
And whereas an order has not been made under section 86 of that Act;
Therefore, the Minister of Citizenship and Immigration, pursuant to subsection 84(2) of the College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants Act, approves the continuance of the Immigration Consultants of Canada Regulatory Council and specifies November 23, 2021 as the date of continuance.
Ottawa, August 3, 2021
Marco E. L. Mendicino
Minister of Citizenship and Immigration
EXPLANATORY NOTE
(This note is not part of the Order.)
Proposal
This Ministerial Order (Order) is to approve the continuance application of the Immigration Consultants of Canada Regulatory Council (ICCRC) and set the date of continuance for the College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants (the College) as November 23, 2021. The Order will come into effect on the same day as continuance, i.e. opening date for the College.
Objective
The objective of this Order is to approve the application of the current regulator (ICCRC) to continue as the new College and specify a date of continuance. Beginning on the date of continuance, the ICCRC will become the College and administer its new functions and powers as per the College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants Act (College Act). This Order is in keeping with the Government's mandate commitment for the full implementation of the new professional governance regime for immigration and citizenship consultants.
Background
Immigration and citizenship consultants who are members of the ICCRC are currently authorized to provide, for a fee or other consideration, advice and representation under section 91 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and section 21.1 of the Citizenship Act. Consultants are authorized to provide clients with advice and represent clients on immigration or citizenship applications by communicating with the Government on the client's behalf.
The role and regulation of consultants has been a recurrent issue over the past decades. There have been instances of unscrupulous or fraudulent consultants misleading or exploiting newcomers or applicants due to their lack of knowledge of Canadian laws and regulations, which can have serious negative impacts on clients and jeopardizes the integrity of Canada's immigration and citizenship system. In June 2017, the House of Commons Standing Committee on Citizenship and Immigration (CIMM) published a report entitled Starting Again: Improving Government Oversight of Immigration Consultants. CIMM studied the framework governing immigration and citizenship consultants and found it inadequate, highlighting three areas of concern: (1) weakness in governance; (2) insufficient resources for investigations and enforcement; and (3) lack of public awareness and the need to better service clients.
In response to the CIMM findings, the Government of Canada announced in 2019 a new governance regime, including the establishment via statute of a strengthened self-regulatory body for consultants in the form of the College of Immigration and Citizenship Consultants. The College Act received royal assent in June 2019 as part of the Budget Implementation Act, 2019, No. 1 and came into force in December 2020.
Following the College Act receiving royal assent, ICCRC members voted 84% in favour of continuing as the new College.
The College Act provides for a new self-regulatory body for immigration and citizenship consultants with strengthened authorities and significant Government oversight mechanisms. With the establishment of the new College, for the first time, the regulator will be equipped with a statutory framework that provides for the responsibilities and authorities required to govern the profession and hold licensed consultants to high standards of professional and ethical conduct. The purpose of the College, once established, is to regulate consultants in the public interest and to protect the public from unscrupulous and fraudulent consultants.
Implications
This Order sets the date of November 23, 2021, for the ICCRC to continue as the new College. On the same day, the ICCRC (as it was previously known) will be discontinued as per the College Act and Canada Not-for-profit Corporations Act.
The College will be a fundamentally different organization than the current regulatory body. The College Act provides for expanded authorities necessary for the regulation of a profession, including strong investigative powers to enter premises of consultants' offices and search and seize documents to support complaints and discipline processes; power to compel witnesses to appear before a disciplinary committee; power to suspend and/or revoke licences to practise as part of disciplinary decisions; and power to seek court injunctions against unauthorized consultants.
The College Act also provides for greater ministerial powers for oversight over the new regulatory body, including power to appoint a majority of public interest directors to the College's Board of Directors (Board) who will be independent and not consultants; establish a Code of Professional Conduct with strong ethical and professional standards that licensed consultants will be required to abide by; make regulations concerning governance of the College; direct the Board to make, amend, or repeal a by-law; and appoint a temporary administrator to act in place of the Board if necessary.
Consultations
The College Act was tabled as part of the Budget Implementation Act, 2019, No. 1 on March 19, 2019. The College Act was considered by the House of Commons Standing Committee on Citizenship and Immigration in May 2019 and then by the Standing Senate Committee on Social Affairs, Science and Technology, with stakeholders representing interests and giving testimony on the legislation and its anticipated impact. Public and stakeholder feedback was generally positive, with most supporting the need for an effective regulator that can adequately discipline consultants for misconduct or incompetence.
Following the royal assent of the College Act in June 2019, Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada officials have engaged with provinces and territories to provide an overview of the College Act and forthcoming regulations and to proactively notify where possible consequential amendments may need to be made to provincial/territorial legislation or regulations.
Contact
Alexis Graham
Director
Social Immigration Policy and Programs
Immigration Branch
Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada
365 Laurier Street West
Ottawa, Ontario
K1A 1L1
Email: Alexis.Graham@cic.gc.ca
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Publication after screening assessment of a substance — 2H-azepin-2-one, hexahydro-(caprolactam), CAS RN footnote 1105-60-2 — specified on the Domestic Substances List (subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas caprolactam is a substance identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;
Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on caprolactam pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;
And whereas it is proposed to conclude that the substance does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,
Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to take no further action on this substance at this time under section 77 of the Act.
Public comment period
As specified under subsection 77(5) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to substances@ec.gc.ca or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada's Single Window.
In accordance with section 313 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit with the information a request that it be treated as confidential.
Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health
ANNEX
Summary of the draft screening assessment of caprolactam
Pursuant to section 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of 2H-azepin-2-one, hexahydro-, hereinafter referred to as caprolactam. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) for caprolactam is 105-60-2. This substance was identified as a priority for assessment as it met the categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA.
Caprolactam occurs naturally in some plants. Data on the quantities of caprolactam manufactured in Canada are not available. The total annual imports of caprolactam into Canada between 2014 and 2018 ranged from 16 639 255 kg (2018) to 21 722 366 kg (2017), according to the Canadian International Merchandise Trade Database.
Caprolactam is primarily used as an intermediate in the production of Nylon 6 polymers, which have a broad range of uses, including in textiles, carpets, industrial yarns, and engineering plastics for industrial and medical applications, as well as in some products available to consumers, such as cosmetics, diapers, and 3D printing filaments. Some residual caprolactam may be present in manufactured articles made with Nylon 6. Caprolactam is also used as a plasticizer, and as a component in the manufacturing of paints and coatings, glue sticks and other adhesives. Caprolactam may also be used as a component in the manufacture of certain food packaging materials and as a food flavouring agent.
The ecological risk of caprolactam was characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web–derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence, and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, caprolactam is considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.
Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from caprolactam. It is proposed to conclude that caprolactam does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.
In terms of potential effects on human health, in laboratory studies conducted via the oral route with caprolactam, offspring effects (reduced body weights), and clinical effects were observed. Local larynx effects (keratinization of the metaplastic epithelium) were observed in inhalation studies. Potential exposure of the general population of Canada to caprolactam can occur through environmental media (e.g. indoor air) and through food packaging materials. Potential exposure to caprolactam by food flavouring agents is considered to be negligible. From the use of products available to consumers, the predominant sources of exposure are glue sticks and Nylon 6 in carpets, lipsticks, diapers, and 3D printing filaments. On the basis of estimates of exposure compared with critical health effect levels identified from laboratory studies, the margins of exposure are considered to be adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure data used to characterize risk.
Considering all the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that caprolactam does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.
Proposed overall conclusion
It is therefore proposed to conclude that caprolactam does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.
The draft screening assessment for this substance is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Publication of final decision after screening assessment of a substance — Lotus corniculatus, extract, CAS RN footnote 1 84696-24-2 — specified on the Domestic Substances List (subsection 77(6) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas Lotus corniculatus extract is a substance identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;
Whereas a summary of the screening assessment conducted on Lotus corniculatus extract pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;
And whereas it is concluded that the substance does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,
Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to take no further action on this substance at this time under section 77 of the Act.
Jonathan Wilkinson
Minister of the Environment
Patty Hajdu
Minister of Health
ANNEX
Summary of the screening assessment of Lotus corniculatus, extract
Pursuant to section 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of Lotus corniculatus, extract. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) for Lotus corniculatus extract is 84696-24-2. This substance was identified as a priority for assessment, as it met categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA.
Lotus corniculatus is a plant that is also known by the common name of bird's-foot trefoil. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, Lotus corniculatus extract was not manufactured in or imported into Canada above the reporting threshold of 100 kg. Notifications submitted under the Cosmetic Regulations to Health Canada identified Lotus corniculatus seed and flower extracts as being present in cosmetic products in Canada.
The ecological risk of Lotus corniculatus extract was characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web–derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, Lotus corniculatus extract is considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.
Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from Lotus corniculatus extract. It is concluded that Lotus corniculatus extract does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.
The general population of Canada may be exposed to Lotus corniculatus extract through the use of cosmetics, including body lotion and lip balm. Some phenotypes of Lotus corniculatus are known to produce cyanogenic glycosides, and the possibility exists that products containing Lotus corniculatus extract could expose consumers to hydrogen cyanide. Although all plant extracts are multiconstituent mixtures of various phytochemicals, based on the known chemistry of Lotus corniculatus, hydrogen cyanide is considered the most toxicologically relevant substance.
Hydrogen cyanide is a systemic toxicant that interferes with the ability of cells to use oxygen by disrupting the electron transport chain, thereby inhibiting cellular respiration. In rodent studies, hydrogen cyanide has effects on the male reproductive system, whereas low levels of hydrogen cyanide exposure are associated with neuropathies and thyroid disturbances in humans. Margins between estimates of cyanide exposure from Lotus corniculatus extract used in cosmetics and critical effect levels are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases for all endpoints.
Considering all the information presented in this screening assessment, it is concluded that Lotus corniculatus extract does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.
Overall conclusion
It is therefore concluded that Lotus corniculatus extract does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.
The screening assessment for this substance is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT
AERONAUTICS ACT
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 35
Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 35 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;
Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71footnote a and 4.9footnote b, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)footnote c and (b)footnote d and section 7.7footnote e of the Aeronautics Actfootnote f;
And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)footnote g of that Act, the Deputy Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;
Therefore, the Deputy Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.1)footnote g of the Aeronautics Actfootnote f, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 35.
Ottawa, July 29, 2021
Michael Keenan
Deputy Minister of Transport
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 35
Interpretation
Definitions
1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.
- aerodrome security personnel
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l'aérodrome)
- air carrier
- means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)
- checked baggage
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (bagages enregistrés)
- COVID-19
- means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
- COVID-19 molecular test
- means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19)
- document of entitlement
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (document d'autorisation)
- elevated temperature
- means a temperature within the range set out in the standards. (température élevée)
- foreign national
- means a person who is not a Canadian citizen or a permanent resident and includes a stateless person. (étranger)
- non-passenger screening checkpoint
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)
- passenger screening checkpoint
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)
- peace officer
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)
- Regulations
- means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)
- restricted area
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)
- screening officer,
- except in section 2, has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)
- standards
- means the document entitled the Transport Canada Temperature Screening Standards, published by the Minister, as amended from time to time. (normes)
Interpretation
(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.
Conflict
(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.
Definition of face mask
(4) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a face mask means any mask, including a non-medical mask that meets all of the following requirements:
- (a) it is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen;
- (b) it completely covers a person's nose, mouth and chin without gaping;
- (c) it can be secured to a person's head with ties or ear loops.
Face masks — lip reading
(5) Despite paragraph (4)(a), the portion of a face mask in front of a wearer's lips may be made of transparent material that permits lip reading if
- (a) the rest of the face mask is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen; and
- (b) there is a tight seal between the transparent material and the rest of the face mask.
Notification
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to measures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
Suitable quarantine plan and prepaid accommodation
(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, a suitable quarantine plan and evidence of prepaid accommodation arrangements that enables them to remain in quarantine at a government-authorized accommodation for a three-day period that begins on the day on which they enter Canada or, if the person is not required under that order to provide the plan and the evidence, their contact information. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.
Vaccination
(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before or when entering Canada, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, information related to their COVID-19 vaccination and evidence of COVID-19 vaccination. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.
False declarations
(4) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1) that they know to be false or misleading.
Definitions
(5) The following definitions apply in this section.
- quarantine officer
- means a person designated as a quarantine officer under subsection 5(2) of the Quarantine Act. (agent de quarantaine)
- screening officer
- has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Quarantine Act. (agent de contrôle)
Confirmation
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
False declaration
(2) A person must not provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(3) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.
Prohibition
4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1).
Foreign Nationals
Prohibition
5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.
Exception
6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act.
Health Check
Non-application
7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:
- (a) a crew member;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
Health check
8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:
- (a) a fever;
- (b) a cough;
- (c) breathing difficulties.
Notification
(2) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if
- (a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
- (b) they have, or suspect that they have, COVID-19;
- (c) they have been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
- (d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
Confirmation
(3) Every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates must confirm to the private operator or air carrier that none of the following situations apply to them:
- (a) the person has, or suspects that they have, COVID-19;
- (b) the person has been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19;
- (c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, the person is the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
False declaration — obligation of private operator or air carrier
(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide answers, with respect to the health check or a confirmation, that they know to be false or misleading.
False declaration — obligations of person
(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to provide a confirmation must
- (a) answer all questions; and
- (b) not provide answers or a confirmation that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(6) A competent adult may answer all questions and provide a confirmation on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to give a confirmation.
Observations — private operator or air carrier
(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).
Prohibition
9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person's answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as the person is boarding, they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (c) the person's confirmation under subsection 8(3) indicates that one of the situations described in paragraphs 8(3)(a), (b) or (c) applies to that person; or
- (d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or to give the confirmation under subsection 8(3).
Period of 14 days
10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada
Application
11 (1) Sections 12 to 17 apply to a private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.
Non-application
(2) Sections 12 to 17 do not apply to persons who are not required under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.
Notification
12 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if they are unable to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.
Evidence — result of test
13 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence that they received either
- (a) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected no more than 72 hours before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time; or
- (b) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen collected at least 14 days and no more than 90 days before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time.
Evidence — location of test
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the COVID-19 molecular test must have been performed in a country or territory that is not listed in Schedule 1.
Evidence — elements
14 Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include
- (a) the person's name and date of birth;
- (b) the name and civic address of the laboratory that administered the test;
- (c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
- (d) the test result.
False or misleading evidence
15 A person must not provide evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that they know to be false or misleading.
Notice to Minister
16 A private operator or air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person's name and contact information and the date and number of the person's flight.
Prohibition
17 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if the person does not provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test in accordance with the requirements set out in section 13.
Temperature Screening — Aerodromes in Canada
Definition of screening authority
18 (1) For the purposes of this section and sections 19 to 29, screening authority has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012.
Application
(2) Sections 19 to 29 apply to all of the following persons:
- (a) a person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2 from a non-restricted area;
- (b) a person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (c) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (d) a screening authority at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (e) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2.
Non-application
(3) Sections 19 to 29 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19;
- (c) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (d) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Requirement
19 A person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building from a non-restricted area within the air terminal building must do so at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Requirement — temperature screening
20 (1) Subject to subsection (3), a screening authority must conduct a temperature screening of every person who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area and of every person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Second screening
(2) Following a rest period of 10 minutes, the screening authority must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Exception
(3) If the temperature screening of a person, other than a passenger, who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area, or of a person who is undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building, indicates that the person does not have an elevated temperature, the screening authority is not required to conduct any further temperature screenings of that person for the duration of the day during which the temperature screening was conducted.
Notification — consequence of elevated temperature
21 (1) An air carrier must notify every person, other than a crew member, who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 20(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Confirmation — consequence of elevated temperature
(2) Before passing beyond a passenger screening checkpoint to board an aircraft for a flight, every person other than a crew member must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 20(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — elevated temperature
22 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 20(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the screening authority must
- (a) deny the person entry to the restricted area; and
- (b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada or enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — refusal
(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the screening authority must deny them entry to the restricted area.
Period of 14 days
23 A person who is denied entry to the restricted area under section 22 is not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Denial — person intending to board aircraft
24 (1) If, under section 22, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight, other than a crew member, the screening authority must, for the purpose of paragraph 24(4)(a), notify the air carrier operating the flight that that person has been denied entry to the restricted area and provide the person's name and flight number to the air carrier.
Denial — person not intending to board aircraft
(2) If, under section 22, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the screening authority must, for the purpose of subsection 24(5), provide the following information to the operator of the aerodrome:
- (a) the person's name as it appears on their document of entitlement;
- (b) the number or identifier of the person's document of entitlement; and
- (c) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.
Denial — crew member
(3) If, under section 22, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member, the screening authority must provide the information referred to in subsection (2) to the air carrier for the purpose of allowing the air carrier to assign a replacement crew member, if necessary.
Denial — air carrier requirements
(4) An air carrier that has been notified under subsection (1) must
- (a) ensure that the person is directed to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, if applicable; and
- (b) if the person is escorted to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, ensure that the escort wears a face mask and maintains a distance of at least two metres between themselves and the person.
Denial — aerodrome operator requirement
(5) The operator of an aerodrome that has been notified under subsection (2) must suspend the person’s restricted area entry privileges for a period of 14 days after the person was denied entry to the restricted area, unless the person provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — restricted area
(6) If, under section 22, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member or to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the crew member or that person must not present themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint at any aerodrome for the purpose of entering a restricted area for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement — equipment
25 A screening authority must ensure that the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under section 20 is calibrated and maintained so that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Requirement — training
26 A screening authority must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under section 20 has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.
Record keeping — equipment
27 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information with respect to any temperature screening it conducts:
- (a) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 22(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint;
- (b) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 22(1)(a) at a non-passenger screening checkpoint;
- (c) the flight number of any person who is denied entry under paragraph 22(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint and the date on which the person was denied entry;
- (d) the make and model of the equipment that the screening authority uses to conduct the temperature screenings under section 20;
- (e) the date and time when that equipment was calibrated and maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance; and
- (f) the results of the calibration and the activities performed during the maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.
Record keeping — training
(2) The screening authority must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 26, as well as the contents of the training.
Retention
(3) The screening authority must
- (a) retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the record was created; and
- (b) retain the records referred to in subsection (2) in accordance with any record retention requirements under the Privacy Act.
Ministerial request
(4) The screening authority must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.
Temperature screening facilities
28 The operator of an aerodrome must make facilities available for temperature screening that are accessible without having to enter a restricted area.
Requirement — air carrier representative
29 An air carrier must ensure that the screening authority at the aerodrome has been provided with the name and telephone number of the on-duty representative of the air carrier for the purpose of facilitating the return of checked baggage to persons who are denied entry to a restricted area under section 22.
Face Masks
Non-application
30 (1) Sections 31 to 36 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a crew member;
- (g) a gate agent.
Face mask readily available
(2) An adult responsible for a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age must ensure that a face mask is readily available to the child before boarding an aircraft for a flight.
Wearing of face mask
(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 33 and complies with any instructions given by a gate agent under section 34 if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Notification
31 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person must
- (a) be in possession of a face mask before boarding;
- (b) wear the face mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building; and
- (c) comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Obligation to possess face mask
32 Every person who is at least six years of age must be in possession of a face mask before boarding an aircraft for a flight.
Wearing of face mask — persons
33 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions — person
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (b) when the person is drinking or eating, unless a crew member instructs the person to wear a face mask;
- (c) when the person is taking oral medications;
- (d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person’s special needs; or
- (e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to verify the person’s identity.
Exceptions — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:
- (a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
- (b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
- (c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
- (d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
- (e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.
Compliance
34 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Prohibition — private operator or air carrier
35 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person is not in possession of a face mask; or
- (b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Refusal to comply
36 (1) If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask, the private operator or air carrier must
- (a) keep a record of
- (i) the date and flight number,
- (ii) the person’s name, date of birth and contact information, including the person’s home address, telephone number and email address,
- (iii) the person’s seat number, and
- (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
- (b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).
Retention period
(2) The private operator or air carrier must retain the record referred to in paragraph (1)(a) for a period of at least 12 months after the day of the flight.
Ministerial request
(3) The private operator or air carrier must make the records referred to in paragraph (1)(a) available to the Minister on request.
Wearing of face mask — crew member
37 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions — crew member
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (b) when the wearing of a face mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
- (c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.
Wearing of face mask — gate agent
38 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a face mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is separated from any other person by a physical barrier that allows the gate agent and the other person to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Deplaning
Non-application
39 (1) Section 40 does not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.
Wearing of face mask
(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 40 if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Wearing of face mask — person
40 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a face mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building, including by a passenger loading bridge.
Screening Authority
Definition of screening authority
41 (1) For the purposes of sections 42 and 45, screening authority means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act.
Non-application
(2) Sections 42 to 45 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (g) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Wearing of face mask
(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under subsection 42(2) and removes it when required by a screening officer to do so under subsection 42(3) if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint
42 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Wearing of face mask — person
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Requirement to remove face mask
(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their face mask during screening must do so.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(4) A screening officer must wear a face mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.
Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint
43 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a face mask at all times.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a face mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Exceptions
(3) Subsection (2) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
44 Sections 42 and 43 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint
45 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a face mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint
(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a face mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Designated Provisions
Designation
46 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 3 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.
Maximum amounts
(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 3 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.
Notice
(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify
- (a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
- (b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
- (c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
- (d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
- (e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.
Repeal
47 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 34, made on July 16, 2021, is repealed.
SCHEDULE 1
(Subsection 13(2))
| Name |
|---|
| India |
SCHEDULE 2
(Subsection 18(2))
| Name | ICAO Location Indicator |
|---|---|
| Calgary International Airport | CYYC |
| Edmonton International Airport | CYEG |
| Halifax / Robert L. Stanfield International Airport | CYHZ |
| Kelowna International Airport | CYLW |
| Montréal / Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport | CYUL |
| Ottawa / Macdonald-Cartier International Airport | CYOW |
| Québec / Jean Lesage International Airport | CYQB |
| Regina International Airport | CYQR |
| Saskatoon / John G. Diefenbaker International Airport | CYXE |
| St. John’s International Airport | CYYT |
| Toronto / Billy Bishop Toronto City Airport | CYTZ |
| Toronto / Lester B. Pearson International Airport | CYYZ |
| Vancouver International Airport | CYVR |
| Victoria International Airport | CYYJ |
| Winnipeg / James Armstrong Richardson International Airport | CYWG |
SCHEDULE 3
(Subsections 46(1) and (2))
| Column 1 Designated Provision |
Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($) |
|
|---|---|---|
| Individual | Corporation | |
| Subsection 2(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 2(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 2(3) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 2(4) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 3(1) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 3(2) | 5,000 | |
| Section 4 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 5 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 8(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 8(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 8(3) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 8(4) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 8(5) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 8(7) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 9 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 10 | 5,000 | |
| Section 12 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 13(1) | 5,000 | |
| Section 15 | 5,000 | |
| Section 16 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 17 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 19 | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 20(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 20(2) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 21(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 21(2) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 22(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 22(2) | 25,000 | |
| Section 23 | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 24(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 24(2) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 24(3) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 24(4) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 24(5) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 24(6) | 5,000 | |
| Section 25 | 25,000 | |
| Section 26 | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 27(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 27(2) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 27(3) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 27(4) | 25,000 | |
| Section 28 | 25,000 | |
| Section 29 | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 30(2) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 30(3) | 5,000 | |
| Section 31 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 32 | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 33(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Section 34 | 5,000 | |
| Section 35 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 36(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 36(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 36(3) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 37(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 38(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
| Subsection 39(2) | 5,000 | |
| Section 40 | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 41(3) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 42(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 42(2) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 42(3) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 42(4) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 43(1) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 43(2) | 5,000 | |
| Subsection 45(1) | 25,000 | |
| Subsection 45(2) | 25,000 | |
INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA
RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
Notice No. SLPB-003-21 — Decision on a Streamlined Framework for Auctioning Residual Spectrum Licences
The intent of this notice is to announce the release of the document entitled SLPB-003-21, Decision on a Streamlined Framework for Auctioning Residual Spectrum Licences, which sets out Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada’s (ISED) decisions regarding the adoption of a simplified framework for auctioning residual spectrum licences.
This document is the result of the consultation process undertaken in notice SLPB-001-21, Consultation on a Streamlined Framework for Auctioning Residual Spectrum Licences.
Obtaining copies
Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on ISED’s Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.
Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.
August 4, 2021
Matthew Kellison
Senior Director
Spectrum Licensing Policy Branch
INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA
RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
Notice No. SLPB-004-21 — Consultation on New Access Licensing Framework, Changes to Subordinate Licensing and White Space to Support Rural and Remote Deployment
The intent of this notice is to announce Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada’s (ISED) initiation of a public consultation on new measures to support innovation and the availability of services in rural and remote areas through the release of the document entitled Consultation on New Access Licensing Framework, Changes to Subordinate Licensing and White Space to Support Rural and Remote Deployment.
Submitting comments
To ensure consideration, parties should submit their comments no later than October 12, 2021. Respondents are asked to provide their comments in electronic format (Microsoft Word or Adobe PDF) by email to spectrumauctions-encheresduspectre@ised-isde.gc.ca. Soon after the close of the comment period, all comments will be posted on ISED’s Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website. ISED will review and consider all comments in order to arrive at its decisions regarding the above-mentioned consultation.
ISED will also provide interested parties with the opportunity to reply to comments from other parties. Reply comments will be accepted until November 24, 2021.
All submissions should cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, the publication date, the title and the reference number of this notice (SLPB-004-21).
Obtaining copies
Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on ISED’s Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.
Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.
August 4, 2021
Chantal Davis
Senior Director
Spectrum Licensing Policy Branch
INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA
RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
Notice No. SMSE-009-21 — Consultation on Updates to the Licensing and Fee Framework for Earth Stations and Space Stations in Canada
Notice is hereby given that Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada is releasing Consultation on Updates to the Licensing and Fee Framework for Earth Stations and Space Stations in Canada.
This consultation addresses the licensing and fee regime for all space stations and all earth stations, except for those earth stations specifically exempt under the Radiocommunication Act. This includes a review of existing spectrum licence fees for fixed- and broadcasting-satellite service (FSS and BSS) and mobile-satellite services (MSS) spectrum.
Interested parties should submit their comments no later than October 4, 2021. Shortly after the close of the comment period, all comments received will be posted on the Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website. Reply comments should be submitted no later than November 8, 2021.
Submitting comments
Respondents are requested to provide their comments in electronic format (Microsoft Word or Adobe PDF), along with a note specifying the software, version number and operating system used, to the following email address: satelliteauthorization-autorisationsatellite@ised-isde.gc.ca.
Paper submissions should be mailed to the following address:
Senior Director
Space Services and International
Engineering, Planning and Standards Branch
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada
235 Queen Street, East Tower, 6th Floor
Ottawa, Ontario
K1A 0H5
All submissions should cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, the publication date, the title, and the notice reference number (SMSE-009-21).
Obtaining copies
Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on the Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.
Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.
August 4, 2021
Martin Proulx
Director General
Engineering, Planning and Standards Branch
OFFICE OF THE SUPERINTENDENT OF FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
TRUST AND LOAN COMPANIES ACT
AST Trust Company (Canada) and TSX Trust Company — Letters patent of amalgamation and order to commence and carry on business
Notice is hereby given of the issuance,
- pursuant to subsection 234(1) of the Trust and Loan Companies Act, of letters patent amalgamating and continuing AST Trust Company (Canada) and TSX Trust Company as one company under the name, in English, AST Trust Company (Canada), and, in French, Société de fiducie AST (Canada), effective 12:01 a.m. on the first day of the month following the acquisition by 12338602 Canada Inc. of all the common shares of AST Investor Services Inc. (Canada); and
- pursuant to subsection 52(5) of the Trust and Loan Companies Act, of an order authorizing AST Trust Company (Canada), and, in French, Société de fiducie AST (Canada), to commence and carry on business, effective on the date on which the letters patent amalgamating and continuing AST Trust Company (Canada) and TSX Trust Company as a company under the name AST Trust Company (Canada) become effective.
August 14, 2021
Peter Routledge
Superintendent of Financial Institutions
PRIVY COUNCIL OFFICE
Appointment opportunities
We know that our country is stronger — and our government more effective — when decision-makers reflect Canada’s diversity. The Government of Canada has implemented an appointment process that is transparent and merit-based, strives for gender parity, and ensures that Indigenous peoples and minority groups are properly represented in positions of leadership. We continue to search for Canadians who reflect the values that we all embrace: inclusion, honesty, fiscal prudence, and generosity of spirit. Together, we will build a government as diverse as Canada.
We are equally committed to providing a healthy workplace that supports one’s dignity, self-esteem and the ability to work to one’s full potential. With this in mind, all appointees will be expected to take steps to promote and maintain a healthy, respectful and harassment-free work environment.
The Government of Canada is currently seeking applications from diverse and talented Canadians from across the country who are interested in the following positions.
Current opportunities
The following opportunities for appointments to Governor in Council positions are currently open for applications. Every opportunity is open for a minimum of two weeks from the date of posting on the Governor in Council appointments website.
| Position | Organization | Closing date |
|---|---|---|
| Member | Canada Council for the Arts | |
| Vice-Chairperson | Canada Council for the Arts | |
| President and Chief Executive Officer | Canada Development Investment Corporation | |
| Director | Canada Foundation for Sustainable Development Technology | |
| Director | Canada Infrastructure Bank | |
| Director | Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation | |
| Chairperson | Canada-Nova Scotia Offshore Petroleum Board | |
| Chief Executive Officer | Canadian Centre on Substance Abuse | |
| Member | Canadian Cultural Property Export Review Board | |
| Chairperson | Canadian Dairy Commission | |
| Chief Executive Officer | Canadian Dairy Commission | |
| Accessibility Commissioner | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
| Deputy Chief Commissioner | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
| Federal Housing Advocate | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
| Member | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
| Chairperson | Canadian Human Rights Tribunal | |
| Director | Canadian Museum of History | |
| Member | Canadian Museum of Nature | |
| Director | Canadian Race Relations Foundation | |
| Director | Destination Canada | |
| Director (Federal) | Hamilton-Oshawa Port Authority | |
| Governor | International Development Research Centre | |
| Chairperson | Laurentian Pilotage Authority Canada | |
| Chairperson | Military Police Complaints Commission of Canada | |
| Trustee | National Gallery of Canada | |
| Member | National Research Council Canada | |
| Chief Accessibility Officer | Office of the Chief Accessibility Officer | |
| Privacy Commissioner | Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada | |
| Member | Payments in Lieu of Taxes Dispute Advisory Panel | |
| Director (Federal) | Québec Port Authority | |
| Chairperson | Standards Council of Canada | |
| Registrar | Supreme Court of Canada | |
| Director (Federal) | Toronto Port Authority | |
| Vice-Chairperson | Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada | |
| Director (Federal) | Trois-Rivières Port Authority | |
| Chairperson | Windsor-Detroit Bridge Authority | |
| Director | Windsor-Detroit Bridge Authority |
BANK OF CANADA
Statement of financial position as at June 30, 2021 (unaudited)
Amounts are in millions of dollars.
Totals
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Assets | 481,246.6 |
| Liabilities and Equity | 481,246.6 |
Assets
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Cash and foreign deposits | 7.3 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Securities purchased under resale agreements | 32,611.2 |
| Advances to members of Payments Canada | n/a |
| Other receivables | 14.5 |
| Total loans and receivables | 32,625.7 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Government of Canada treasury bills | 11,333.5 |
| Government of Canada bonds — carried at amortized cost | 117,630.3 |
| Government of Canada bonds — carried at fair value through profit and loss | 257,871.4 |
| Canada Mortgage Bonds | 9,601.0 |
| Other bonds | 17,296.2 |
| Securities lent or sold under repurchase agreements | 26,565.6 |
| Other securities | 684.1 |
| Shares in the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) | 479.3 |
| Total investments | 441,461.4 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada | 6,309.2 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Property and equipment | 548.5 |
| Intangible assets | 96.0 |
| Right-of-use leased assets | 43.1 |
| Total capital assets | 687.6 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Other assets | 155.4 |
Liabilities and Equity
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Bank notes in circulation | 109,769.4 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Government of Canada | 62,068.0 |
| Members of Payments Canada | 273,813.1 |
| Other deposits | 8,680.4 |
| Total deposits | 344,561.5 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Securities sold under repurchase agreements | 25,386.6 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada | n/a |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Other liabilities | 957.8 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Total liabilities | 480,675.3 |
| Item | Amount |
|---|---|
| Share capital | 5.0 |
| Statutory and special reserves | 125.0 |
| Investment revaluation reserve | 441.3 |
| Total equity | 571.3 |
I declare that the foregoing statement is correct according to the books of the Bank.
Ottawa, July 29, 2021
Coralia Bulhoes
Chief Financial Officer and Chief Accountant
I declare that the foregoing statement is to the best of my knowledge and belief correct, and shows truly and clearly the financial position of the Bank, as required by section 29 of the Bank of Canada Act.
Ottawa, July 29, 2021
Tiff Macklem
Governor